200 MCQ on Constitution
1) In Indian Constitution, the idea of "A Union of States in the Indian Constitution" has been derived from
A. Constitution of Belgium
B. The Australian Constitution
C. Constitution of Colombia
D. Constitution of Bhutan
Answer: b
2) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language?
A. XVII
B. XVI
C. X
D. XV
Answer: a
3) Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?
A. Article 58
B. Article 44
C. Article 52
D. Article 50
Answer: d
4) The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 11
B. Article 13
C. Article 19
D. Article 22
Answer: c
5) What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?
A. Half of the total members of the House
B. A quarter of the total members of the House
C. One- fifth of the total members of the House
D. One-tenth of the total members of the House.
Answer: d
6) How many Fundamental Rights have been provided by the Constitution of India?
A. Eight
B. Nine
C. Five
D. Six
Answer: d
7) Who is the Constitutional head of the state governments?
A. Chief Minister of the State
B. High court judge
C. Governor
D. Health Minister of the State
Answer: c
8) How many fundamental duties are noticed in the Constitution of India?
A. Nine
B. Eleven
C. Eight
D. Eleven
Answer: d
9) Which of the given schedules of the Indian Constitution includes the Provision regarding Anti-Defection Law?
A. Sixth schedule
B. Seventh schedule
C. Tenth schedule
D. Eleventh schedule
Answer: c
10) The foundation of the Finance commission is laid down under which of the given articles?
A. Article 202
B. Article 280
C. Article 263
D. Article 231
Answer: b
11) Which of the Indian Constitution's given Article has the right to privacy been incorporated as fundamental rights?
A. Article 15
B. Article 17
C. Article 21
D. Article 23
Answer: c
12) Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution prescribes for the submission of an annual report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission?
A. Article 320
B. Article 323
C. Article 326
D. Article 330
Answer: b
13) In which part of the Indian Constitution, we find the provisions relating to citizenship?
A. Part II
B. Part V
C. Part VI
D. Part IV
Answer: b
14) Who among the given has the right to summon the Parliament?
A. Prime minister
B. President
C. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D. Vice President
Answer: b
15) Habeas Corpus is associated with which of the given part of the Indian Constitution?
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Fundamental Duties
Answer: b
16) Federalism is taken in the Indian Constitution form which of the following countries?
A. Germany
B. Canada
C. Australia
D. Italy
Answer: b
17) The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on
A. 25 December 1949
B. 26 January 1949
C. 09 December 1946
D. 11 November 1946
Answer: c
18) What does the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contain?
A. Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection
B. Administration and control of Tribal Areas of Northeastern states
C. Powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipalities
D. Administration and control Schedule areas and Schedule Tribes
Answer: a
19) Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security?
A. Article 57
B. Article 51
C. Article 59
D. Article 49
Answer: b
20) India is called a secular country because citizens have the fundamental right to
A. freedom of speech and expression
B. freedom to profess the religion of one's choice.
C. assemble peaceably and without arms
D. form associations or unions or co-operative societies
Answer: b
21) What is the meaning of the term 'Liberty'?
A. Right to express anything
B. Right to go anywhere
C. Absence of restrictions
D. Presence of restrictions
Answer: c
22) The doctrine of "Basic Structure" was evolved in which of the given case?
A. Madhav Jiwaji Rao Scindia case
B. Kesavananda Bharti case
C. Champakam Dorairajan case
D. Golaknath case
Answer: b
23) Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes the Taxes are levied and collected by the center but distributed between the Centre and the states?
A. Article 322
B. Article 270
C. Article 318
D. Article 251
Answer: b
24) The code of Criminal Procedure was coming into existence on
A. 26 January 1946
B. 01 March 1973
C. 24 April 1955
D. 01 April 1974
Answer: d
25) Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to any person?
A. Article 41
B. Article 72
C. Article 27
D. Article 91
Answer: b
26) Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution is regarding the duties of the Chief Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor?
A. Article 167
B. Article 195
C. Article 187
D. Article 165
Answer: a
27) The law-making procedure in the Indian Constitution has been inconsiderably influenced by the Constitution of -----?
A. Australia
B. Japan
C. North Korea
D. UK
Answer: b
28) An inter-state council may be established by
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The President
D. The National Development Council
Answer: c
29) Who among the following appoints the Lokayukta and Uplokayukta?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Vice President
D. Governor or Lieutenant Governor the concerned state/UT
Answer: d
30) EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) was first used in which year?
A. 1992
B. 1973
C. 1982
D. 1980
Answer: c
31) How much time did it take for the creation of the Indian Constitution?
A. 2 years 3 months 26 days
B. 2 years 11 months 18 days
C. 2 years 6 months 23 days
D. 2 years 5 months 11 days
Answer: b
32) Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is about scheduled languages?
A. X
B. VIII
C. IX
D. VI
Answer: b
33) Which of the following Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections?
A. 57th
B. 48th
C. 61st
D. 49th
Answer: c
34) Which of the given amendment in the Indian Constitution led to the beginning of Panchayat Raj in India?
A. 73rd
B. 64th
C. 62nd
D. 69th
Answer: a
35) Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of the President's rule?
A. Article 344
B. Article 356
C. Article 375
D. Article 344
Answer: b
36) The provision of office of Vice President in the Indian Constitution is taken from which country?
A. Russia
B. Bangladesh
C. America
D. Italy
Answer: c
37) Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of Council of Minister for aid and advice of the President of India?
A. Article 63
B. Article 74
C. Article 77
D. Article 66
Answer: b
38) Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
A. Article 351
B. Article 71
C. Article 12 - 35
D. Article 46 – 59
Answer: c
39) The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
A. 16 days
B. 14 days
C. 10 days
D. 7 days
Answer: b
40) The number of Lok Sabha seats were raised from 525 to 545 by which of the given amendment?
A. 56th
B. 48th
C. 31st
D. 35th
Answer: c
41) Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
A. Article 343
B. Article 355
C. Article 338
D. Article 333
Answer: c
42) The DPSP (Directive Principle of State Policy) in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from which country?
A. Australia
B. USA
C. Russia
D. Ireland.
Answer: d
43) Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the High court to issue writs?
A. Article 223
B. Article 229
C. Article 232
D. Article 226
Answer: d
44) The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President comprises of?
A. All the members of the Lok Sabha
B. Members of state Legislative assemblies
C. All the members of the Rajya Sabha
D. Both option a and c
Answer: d
45) Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution, the provision of Election Commission is mentioned?
A. Article 320
B. Article 324
C. Article 330
D. Article 336
Answer: b
46) Who is the chairman of the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC)?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Finance Minister
Answer: d
47) Which of the given schedule of the Indian Constitution is included the "Gram-Panchayats"?
A. Schedule 10
B. Schedule 11
C. Schedule 12
D. Schedule 13
Answer: b
48) In ____________, the President of India can keep a bill for an indefinite period.
A. Pocket Veto
B. Regular Veto
C. Absolute Veto
D. All of these
Answer: a
49) As per the Indian Constitution, the retirement age of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is?
A. 52 years
B. 55 years
C. 60 Years
D. 65 years
Answer: d
50) Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Government in the states?
A. Part IV
B. Part VI
C. Part V
D. Part IX
Answer: b
51. Which of the following is described as the ‘Soul of the Constitution’?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Preamble
Answer-D
52. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on
A. Philosophy of India
B. ‘Objectives Resolution’ drafted & moved by Pandit Nehru
C. Indian Culture
D. Religious Concept
Answer-B
53. The term ‘We’ in Preamble means
A. Indian Government
B. Supreme Courts
C. Indian Parliament
D. The People of India
Answer-D
54. Indian Constitution ensures ‘Justice’ in which of the following form
A. Social
B. Economic
C. Political
D. All of the above
Answer-D
55. Preamble has been amended by which Amendment Act?
A. 27th Constitutional Amendment
B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment
C. 44th Constitutional Amendment
D. 40th Constitutional Amendment
Answer-B
56. In which case, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is ‘not’ a part of the Constitution?
A. Berubari Union case
B. Kesavanada Bharati case
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Answer-A
57. In which case, the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution?
A. Berubari Union case
B. Kesavanada Bharati case
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Answer-B
58. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from
A. Indian Culture
B. Government of India
C. The People of India
D. Princely states
Answer-C
59. As per Preamble, date of adoption of the Constitution is
A. 26th January 1950
B. 26th November 1949
C. 11th December 1946
D. None of the above
Answer-B
60. 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) added which of the terms to the Preamble
A. Socialist
B. Secular
C. Sovereign
D. Both (a) & (b)
Answer-D
61. Which part of the Indian Constitution expressly declares that India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Preamble
D. Fundamental Duties
Answer-C
62. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
A. the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
B. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
C. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
D. None of the Above
Answer-B
63. The correct sequence of the following words in the Preamble is
A. Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular, Republic
B. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
C. Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Secular, Republic
D. None of these
Answer-B
64. The Constitution of which country was the first to begin with a Preamble?
A. USA
B. India
C. Britain
D. Canada
Answer-A
65. The ideal of Justice (Social, Economic and Political) in the Preamble draws its inspiration from
A. Russian Revolution
B. American Civil War
C. French Revolution
D. Japanese Constitution
Answer-A
66. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble have been taken from
A. French Revolution
B. Russian Revolution
C. American Civil War
D. None of the above
Answer-A
67. Which of the following is true about Preamble?
A. It is a source of power to legislature and a source of prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
B. It is justiciable.
C. Its provisions are enforceable in courts of law.
D. None of the above.
Answer-D
68. What does the term ‘Secular’ mean in the Indian context?
A. All religions are equal in the eyes of the government and the State does not uphold any particular religion as its official religion.
B. Special importance to a religion related to minorities.
C. One religion is promoted by the government.
D. None of the following.
Answer-A
69. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment added which of the following 4words in the Preamble?
A. Socialist
B. Secular
C. Integrity
D. All of the above
Answer-D
70. Which of the following words in not mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
A. Sovereign
B. Socialist
C. Democratic
D. Indians
Answer-D
71. The word ‘Sovereign’ mentioned in the Preamble implies_____
A. India is an Independent State.
B. India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation.
C. India is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external).
D. All of the above.
Answer-D
72. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. India’s membership of the Commonwealth of Nations does not affect India’s Sovereignty in any manner.
B. India’s membership of United Nations Organization (UNO) does not limit India’s Sovereignty.
C. India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state.
D. All of the above.
Answer-D
73. Till now, the Preamble to the Constitution of India has been amended for how many times?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Never
Answer-A
74. In which of the following, are the basic aims and objectives of the Indian Constitution discussed?
A. Part -1
B. Preamble
C. Part –II
D. Schedule
Answer-B
75. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
A. The objective resolution passed by Pt. Nehru was what became the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
B. Preamble is enforceable in the court of law.
C. Preamble has been amended only once in 1976.
D. Preambles proves that the sovereignty lies ultimately with the Indian People.
Answer-B
76. 42nd Constitutional Amendment was done in which year?
A. 1976
B. 1966
C. 1986
D. 1972
Answer-A
77. Which among the following was the outcome of Kesavananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala case, 1973?
A. Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution and subject to amending power of the Parliament.
B. Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution and not subject to amending power of the Parliament.
C. Preamble is a part of the Constitution but not subject to amending power of the parliament.
D. Preamble is not a part of the Constitution but is subject to the amending power of the Parliament.
Answer-A
78. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution aims at securing
A. Dignity of Individual and Unity & Integrity of the nation.
B. Fundamental Rights to all individuals.
C. Fundamental Rights to the citizens of India.
D. Security of tenure to all government servants.
Answer-A
79. What is the meaning of ‘equality’ in the Indian Constitution?
A. Lack of opportunities
B. Lack of equality
C. Absence of special privileges to any section of the society, and provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination.
D. None of the above.
Answer-C
80. Which of the following terms was not included in a “union of trinity” by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly?
A. Liberty
B. Flexibility
C. Equality
D. Fraternity
Answer-B
81. The philosophy underlying the Indian constitution was embodied quite early in the Objective Resolution, which was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly (on 13 December 1946) by:
A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
D. Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Answer- A
81. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by
A. The Constitution First Amendment Act.
B. The Constitution Second Amendment Act
C. The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act.
D. The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.
Answer: (A)
82. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per
A. Article 40
B. Article 43
C. Article 44
D. Article 48
Answer: (C)
83. In India sovereignty lies with
A. The Constitution
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Parliament
D. The People
Answer: (D)
84. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in
A. Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of M.P.www.netugc.com
B. Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner.
C. State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar
D. Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India
Answer: (A)
85. The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in
A. Samsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
B. U.N. RaoVs Indira Gandhi
C. Ram Jawaya Kapoor Vs State of Punjab
D. Sardar Lal Vs Union Government
Answer: (A)
86. The Concurrent List was described as a ‘Twilight Zone’, as it were for both the Union and the States are competent to legislate in this field without coming in to conflict” is stated by
A. Basu, D.D.
B. Dicey, A.V.
C. Pyle, M.V.
D. Ambedkar, B.
Answer: (C)
87. Article 360 has been invoked
A. Only one time.
B. two times.
C. three times.
D. Never invoked
Answer: (D)
88. The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of the Constitution of India
A. Berubari case
B. A. K. Gopalan case
C. Balaji Case
D. Minerva Mill’s case
Answer: (A)
89. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A. 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
B. 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
C. 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
D. 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Answer: (C)
90. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is
A. Directive Principle of State Policy
B. Fundamental National Policy
C. Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
D. Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
Answer: (D)
91. Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
A. Seven other judges
B. Twelve other judges
C. Thirteen other judges
D. Fifteen other judges
Answer: (A)
92. A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A. Three months
B. Six monthswww.netugc.com
C. Nine months
D. Twelve months
Answer: (D)
93. The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of
A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. One year
Answer: (B)
94. The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in Article 368 by
A. Twenty Fourth Amendment Act
B. Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
C. Forty Second Amendment Act
D. Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Answer: (A)
95. Social, economic and political Justice is
A. an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
B. guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
C. a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
D. guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court
Answer: (A)
96. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of
A. Art. 20 of the Constitution of India
B. Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
C. Art. 22 of the Constitution of India
D. Art. 23 of the Constitution of India
Answer: (D)
97. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
A. Citizens of India
B. Public Servants
C. All those who run public and private sectors
D. Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
Answer: (A)
98. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is
A. Certiorari
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Quo-Warranto
Answer: (D)
99. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
A. Legislative power
B. Executive power
C. Quasi-judicial power
D. Judicial power
Answer: (A)
100. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
A. The President of India
B. The Parliament by resolution
C. The Parliament by Law
D. The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C)
101. At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period ofwww.netugc.com
A. Fifteen days
B. Two months
C. One month
D. Six months
Answer: (B)
102 “It is likely that free India may befederal India, though in any event there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” This statement was made by
A. Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
D. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Answer: (C)
103. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on
A. Precedents and conventions
B. Rule of law
C. Due process of law
D. Procedure established by law
Answer: (D)
104. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because:
A. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
B. The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
C. The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.
D. The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.
Answer: (A)
105. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case:
A. S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India
B. T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India
C. A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai
D. Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan
Answer: (A)
106. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is
A. Three months
B. Four months
C. Five months
D. Six months
Answer: (D)
107. The Supreme Court observed that “Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights” in the following case:
A. Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P. Assemblywww.netugc.com
B. Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan
C. M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha
D. State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang
Answer: (C)
108. For the purpose of creating
a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed
by
A.
2/3rd majority of the
members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.
B.
2/3rd majority of the
members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd
majority of the States.
C.
A simple majority in Parliament
and ratification by not less than half of the States.
D.
A simple majority by
the Parliament.
Answer: (D)
109. The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by
A. First Amendment Act
B. Seventh Amendment Act
C. Forty-Second Amendment Act
D. Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
Answer: (C)
110. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of
A. Religion, race and caste only.
B. Religion, caste and sex only.
C. Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.
D. Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Answer: (D)
111. Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?
A. Article 352
B. Article 355
C. Article 356
D. Article 360
Answer: (B)
112. ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in
A. P. Rathinam V. Union of India
B. Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
C. Both (A) and (B) above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: (B)
113. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the ground(s) of
A. Proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
B. Violation of the Constitution.
C. Both (A) and (B) above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: (A)
114. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List, provided it is in the
A. Public interest
B. National interest
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Answer: (B)
115.The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
A. 125
B. 352
C. 226
D. 324
Answer: (D)
116. The protection of Human Rights Act in India was enacted in the year
A. 1993
B. 1994
C. 1995
D. 1996
Answer: (A)
117. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates ‘Abolition of Untouchability’?
A. Right to Religion
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right against Exploitation
Answer: (B)
118. Helsinki Declaration, 1964 is concerned with
A. War prevention
B. Human Experimentation
C. Gender discrimination
D. Child Abuse
Answer: (B)
119. Who introduced the concept of third generation Human Rights?
A. Tullius Cesero
B. Jermy Bentham
C. John Finnis
D. Karel Vasak
Answer: (D)
120. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
A. December 1, 1948
B. December 10, 1948
C. December 11, 1948
D. December 31, 1948
Answer: (B)
121. Which one of the Schedules of the Constitution given below deals with recognised languages?
A. Schedule 8
B. Schedule 7
C. Schedule 12
D. Schedule 9
Answer: (A)
122. Which one of the following is not a UN Agency?
A. UNICEF
B. UNESCO
C. WTO
D. ILO
Answer: (C)
123. Which Article of the Third Geneva Convention of 1949 defines the prisoners of War?
A. Article 1
B. Article 2
C. Article 3
D. Article 4
Answer: (D)
124. The International Criminal Court (ICC) Review Conference, 2010 held at
A. Paris
B. Kampala
C. The Hague
D. Rio de Janeiro
Answer: (B)
125. Who coined the term ‘Genocide’?
A. Raphael Lemkin
B. Eleanor Roosevelt
C. P Thornberry
D. Jafferson
Answer: (A)
126. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Refugees?
A. They are outside their country
B. Fear of persecution
C. Absence of National protection
D. Poverty as reason of being outside the country
Answer: (D)
127. Right to Education is guaranteed under Article
A. 14
B. 19
C. 21-A
D. 21
Answer: (C)
128. Fundamental Duties are contained in
A. Part IV Article 51-A
B. Part IV Article 51-B
C. Part III Article 35
D. Part III Article 17
Answer: (A)
129. Who was the founder of the International Committee of the Red Cross?
A. Henry Dunant
B. F. Lieber
C. Rousseau
D. None of the above
Answer: (A)
130. The UN Sub-Commission on ‘The Prevention of Discrimination and Protection of Minorities’ wasestablished in 1947 by
A. General Assembly
B. Security Council
C. Commission on Human Rights
D. International Court of Justice
Answer: (C)
131. Who among the following propounded the modern principles of Natural Justice?
A. Locke
B. J.S. Mill
C. A.V. Dicey
D. John Rawals
Answer: (C)
132. Guidelines for arrest of persons by the police were given by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
A. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
B. Auto Sankar vs. State of Tamil Nadu
C. Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar
D. D. K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal
Answer: (D)
133. Which Amendment introduced the word ‘secular’ in the Preamble of Indian Constitution?
A. 44th
B. 42nd
C. 93rd
D. 16th
Answer: (B)
134. The legal positivism, a school of thought which does not accept human rights as merely moral or just was propounded by
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Hegel
D. Austin
Answer: (D)
135. ‘Laissez faire’ philosophy is an anti thesis of
A. Interventionist State
B. Repressive State
C. Soft State
D. Welfare State
Answer: (D)
136. Assertion (A): One of the fundamental principles of the Indian
Constitution is the Rule of Law.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India has guaranteed to every citizen the equality before law and has recognized the judiciary as the unfailing guardian of the rights of people.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
137. Assertion (A): Women in India today legally enjoy equal opportunities with men in all the fields.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India prohibits any kind of discrimination against women.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
138. Assertion (A): Bonded Labour is illegal in India.
Reason (R): Constitution of India prohibits bonded labour.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
139. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles constitute a body of rights/privileges guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to the people.
Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are justiciable whereas Directive principles are not.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (D)
140. Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties are not enforceable before a Court of Law.
Reason (R): Fundamental Duties can be enforced only through Constitutional means.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
141. Assertion (A): Power of the President to grant pardon and to suspend, remit or commute sentences under Article 72 of the Constitution is politically much abused from the Human Rights point of view.
Reason (R): The advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President under Article 74 of the Constitution is binding on the President.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
101 Law Points on Hindu Marriage Act for Higher Judicial Services
142. Assertion (A): Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 cannot be abridged even during emergency.
Reason (R): There is no need of emergency provisions in a democratic country.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
143. Assertion (A): Capital punishment (Death Sentence) is impermissible Under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
Reason (R : According to Article 5 of universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), no one shall be subjected to Torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
144. Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State policy are not justiciable in a Court of Law.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles are Fundamental in the governance of the country.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
145. Assertion (A): Marx was against the Religion.
Reason (R): Religion is opium of the masses.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and(R) is not the correct explanationof (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
146. Arrange the following laws in chronological order in which they addressed Human Rights problems relating to practice of untouchability.
(i) The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
(ii) The Protection of Civil Rights Act.
(iii) The Untouchability Offences Act.
(iv) The Bihar Harijan (Removal of Civil Disabilities) Act
Codes:
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (A)
147. Arrange the following events in chronologically
(i) Nehru Report
(ii) Objective Resolution
(iii) Sapru Report
(iv) Morley Minto Reforms
Codes:
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)
148. Arrange the following in order of the year of their establishment:
(i) Sachar Committee
(ii) Rangnath Mishra Commission
(iii) Gopal Singh Committee
(iv) Nanavati Commission on Godhra
Codes:
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer: (A)
149. Arrange the following Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India in order of sequence:
(i) Right to form Association
(ii) Right to Education
(iii) Prohibition of Traffic in human beings and forced labour
(iv) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Codes:
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (D)
150. Arrange the following Human Rights Conventions in the chronological order of their adoption:
(i) Convention on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against women.
(ii) Convention on the prevention and punishment of the crime of genocide.
(iii) Convention on the protection of the Rights of Migrant workers.
(iv) Convention against Torture.
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (B)
151. Arrange the following events in the order in which they happened using the codes given below:
(i) Swadeshi Movement
(ii) Motilal Nehru Committee
(iii) Quit India Movement
(iv) Jalianwala Bagh
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (B)
152. Who among the following launched educational reform movements among Muslims in India?
(i) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(ii) Sir W.W. Hunters
(iii) Shah Waliullah
(iv) Zakir Hussain
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
153. Arrange sequence of following concepts as they appear in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, using codes given below:
(i) Marriage
(ii) Right to Education
(iii) Arbitrary arrest
(iv) Equality
Codes:
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer: (D)
154. Arrange sequence of following concepts as appearing in International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966:
(i) Liberty of movement
(ii) Torture, in human treatment and punishment
(iii) Slavery
(iv) Family
Codes:
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer: (B)
155. Arrange the following regional human rights instruments in the order of their adoption:
(i) African Charter on Human and People’s Rights
(ii) American Convention on Human Rights
(iii) European Convention on Human Rights
(iv) Arab Charter on Human Rights
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (B)
From question numbers 41 – 46 matchList – I with List – II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given below:
156. List – I List – II
a. Free Legal Aid i. Article – 51
b. Uniform Civil Code ii. Article – 48A
c. Promotion of International Peace and Security iii. Article – 44
d. Safeguarding forests and wild life iv. Article – 39A
Codes:
(A) i iv ii iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) ii iii iv i
Answer: (C)
157. List – I List – II
a. Indigenous and Tribal People’s Convention – 1989 i. UNESCO
b. Convention Against Discrimination in Education – 1960 ii. Council of Europe
c. Geneva Convention –1949 iii. ILO
d. The Framework Convention for the protection of National Minorities – 1994 iv. ICRC
Codes:
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iii i iv ii
Answer: (D)
158. List – I List – II
(Commissions) (Chairpersons)
a. National Human Rights Commission i. Wajahat Habibullah
b. National Commission of Minorities ii. K.G. Balakrishnan
c. National Commission for Scheduled Castes iii. MamtaSharma
d. National Commission on Women iv. P.L. Punia
Codes:
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (B)
159. List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Amartya Sen i. Theory of Justice
b. John Rawls ii. Development as Freedom
c. Ronald Dworkin iii. On Liberty
d. J.S. Mill iv. Taking Rights seriously
Codes:
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
Answer: (A)
160. List – I List – II
a. Justice i. Dehumanisation
b. Third generation of Human Rights ii. Model of development
c. Globalization iii. Collective Rights or Solidarity Rights
d. Growth approach iv. Basic concept
Codes:
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) ii i iv iii
Answer: (B)
161. List – I List – II
(Organizations) (Areas of Work)
a. ICRC i. Environment & Science
b. PUCL ii. Conservation of Nature
c. IUCN iii. Humanitarian Law
d. CES iv. Civil Rights
Codes:
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iv iii ii
Answer: (B)
162. Choose the correct statement:
A. Dalit justice movement was part of Indian mythologized history.
B. Dalit repression did not prevail in the mythologized Indian history.
C. Divinity attributed caste system of ancient India would have facilitated Dalit oppression in all probability.
D. None of the above.
Answer: (C)
163. Divine attributes to caste:
A. Provide sense of security
B. Provide justification for physical alienation
C. Provide psychological satisfaction about relative superiority
D. Provide all the above
Answer: (D)
164. Identify the statement which is not correct?
A. Medieval age also witnessed anti-caste movements.
B. All caste movements whether pre-modern or modern attack on Brahmanism.
C. Some new religions have their origin in anti-caste philosophy.
D. None of the above
Answer: (D)
165. Which statement correctly depicts the stand of the author of the passage?
A. Caste system of earlier times was not rigid.
B. Inter caste movements were possible in earlier times.
C. Rigidity of caste system remained the same till the advent of British Rule.
D. The contention about flexible caste system is proved beyond doubt.
Answer: (C)
166. What are two rights of everyone living in the United States? Choose one:
A. Freedom to petition the government and freedom to disobey traffic laws.
B. Freedom of worship and freedom to make treaties with other countries.
C. Freedom of speech and freedom to run for president.
D. Freedom of speech and freedom of worship.
Answer: d
167. What is freedom of religion? Choose one:
A. You can’t choose the time you practice your religion.
B. You must choose a religion.
C. You can practice any religion, or not practice a religion.
D. No one can practice a religion.
Answer: c
168. Who is in charge of the executive branch? Choose one:
A. The Speaker of the House.
B. The Prime Minister.
C. The President.
D. The Chief Justice.
Answer: c
169. Name one branch or part of the government. Choose one:
A. State government.
B. Legislative.
C. Parliament.
D. United Nations.
Answer: b
170. What do we call the first ten amendments to the Constitution? Choose one:
A. The Articles of Confederation.
B. The inalienable rights.
C. The Declaration of Independence.
D. The Bill of Rights.
Answer: d
171. Under our Constitution, some powers belong to the states. What is one power of the states? Choose one:
A. Make treaties.
B. Provide schooling and education.
C. Create an army.
D. Coin or print money.
Answer: b
172. Who is the Commander in Chief of the military? Choose one:
A. The President.
B. The Vice-President.
C. The Secretary of Defense.
D. The Attorney General.
Answer: a
173. If both the President and the Vice President can no longer serve, who becomes President? Choose one:
A. President of the Senate
B. Speaker of the House
C. Governor of the most populous state
D. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Answer: b
174. Who vetoes bills? Choose one:
A. The President
B. The Vice President
C. The Senate
D. The House of Representatives
Answer: a
175. What does the President’s Cabinet do?
A. Advises the president
B. Selects the Vice President
C. Runs the government when the President travels
D. Negotiates treaties with foreign nations
Answer: a
176. We elect a U.S. Senator for how many years? Choose one:
A. Ten (10).
B. Four (4).
C. Two (2).
D. Six (6).
Answer: d
177. What stops one branch of government from becoming too powerful? Choose one:
A. The President.
B. Checks and balances.
C. The people.
D. Freedom of speech.
Answer: b
178. We elect a President for how many years? Choose one:
A. Eight (8).
B. Two (2).
C. Four (4).
D. Ten (10).
Answer: c
179. The idea of self-government is in the first three words of the Constitution. What are these words? Choose one:
A. We the People.
B. Congress shall make.
C. We the British.
D. We the Colonists.
Answer: a
180. Who makes federal laws? Choose one:
A. Congress.
B. The states.
C. The President.
D. The Supreme Court.
Answer: a
181. What is the highest court in the United States? Choose one:
A. Federal Appeals Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Circuit Court
D. International Court of Justice
Answer: b
182. What is the “rule of law”? Choose one:
A. Everyone but the President must follow the law.
B. Government does not have to follow the law.
C. All laws must be the same in every state.
D. Everyone must follow the law.
Answer: d
183. What does the Constitution do? Choose one:
A. Defines the government.
B. Sets up the government.
C. Protects basic rights of Americans.
D. All of these answers.
Answer: d
184. How many justices are on the Supreme Court?
A. 9
B. 5
C. 12
D. 3
Answer: a
185. When is the last day you can send in your federal income tax forms?
A. December 31
B. February 1
C. June 1
D. April 15
Answer: d
186. What are the two major political parties in the United States today? Choose one:
A. Reform and Green.
B. American and Bull-Moose.
C. Democratic-Republican and Whig.
D. Democrat and Republican.
Answer: d
187. Under our Constitution, some powers belong to the federal government. What is one power of the federal government? Choose one:
A. To provide police departments.
B. To issue driver’s licenses.
C. To make treaties.
D. To provide schooling.
Answer: c
189. Who does a U.S. Senator represent? Choose one:
A. All people of the state in which (s)he was elected.
B. All people of the state who belong to the Senator’s political party.
C. The state legislatures.
D. Only the people in the state who voted for the Senator.
Answer: a
190. How old do citizens have to be to vote for President? Choose one:
A. Thirty-five (35) or older.
B. Sixteen (16) or older.
C. Twenty-one (21) or older.
D. Eighteen (18) or older.
Answer: d.
191. What happened at the Constitutional Convention? Choose one:
A. The Declaration of Independence was written.
B. The Emancipation Proclamation was written.
C. The Constitution was written.
D. The Virginia Declaration of Rights was written.
Answer: c
192. How many amendments does the Constitution have? Choose one:
A. 19
B. 18
C. 25
D. 27
Answer: d
193. Name one U.S. Territory. Choose one:
A. Hawaii
B. Cuba
C. Puerto Rico
D. Okinawa
Answer: c
194. What does the judicial branch do? Choose one:
A. Decides if a law goes against the Constitution.
B. Reviews laws.
C. Resolves disputes.
D. All of the above.
Answer: d
195. Name one American Indian Tribe in the United States? Choose one:
A. Cherokee
B. Guarani
C. Igbo
D. Tuareg
Answer: a
195. Who wrote the Declaration of Independence? Choose one:
A. Abraham Lincoln.
B. James Madison.
C. George Washington.
D. Thomas Jefferson.
Answer: d
196. What are two ways that Americans can participate in their democracy? Choose one:
A. Write to a newspaper and call Senators and Representatives.
B. Give an elected official your opinion on an issue and join a community group.
C. Vote and join a civic group.
D. All of these answers.
Answer: d
197. There are four amendments to the Constitution about who can vote. Describe one of them. Choose one:
A. Citizens seventeen (17) and older can vote.
B. Citizens by birth only can vote.
C. Citizens eighteen (18) and older can vote.
D. Only citizens with a job can vote.
Answer: c
198. Who signs bills to become laws? Choose one:
A. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
B. The Vice President.
C. The Secretary of State.
D. The President.
Answer: d
199. The House of Representatives has how many voting members? Choose one:
A. Four hundred forty-one (441).
B. Four hundred thirty-five (435).
C. Two hundred (200).
D. One hundred (100).
Answer: b
200. Why do some states have more Representatives than other states? Choose one:
A. Because the state's Representatives have seniority in the House of Representatives.
B. Because of the state's population.
C. Because of the geographical size of the state.
D. Because of the state's location.
Answer: b
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