100 MCQ on Agriculture with answers

 1. Agriculture is a ­­­­­­­­
a)      Greek word
b)      Latin word
c)      German word
d)      Spanish
Ans. B
2. The term agronomy is derived from ________
a)      German word
b)      Latin word
c)      Spanish
d)      Greek word
Ans. D
3. Primary resource for agriculture
a)      Land, air and water
b)      Seed, Fertilizer and Pesticide
c)      Seed, air and water
d)      Land, Fertilizer and water
Ans. A
4. Cultivation of rice begins in _______
a)      2200 BC
b)      5700 BC
c)      7700 BC
d)      8700 BC
Ans. A
5. The book ‘Horse hoeing husbandry’ was published by _______
a)      Van Helmont
b)      Gregor Johann Mendel
c)      Jethro tull
d)      None
Ans. C
6. The ‘Annals of Agriculture’ was published by _________
a)      Jethro Tull
b)      Aurther Young
c)      Van Helmont
d)      None
Ans. B
7. The book ‘Element of Agricultural Chemistry’ was published by ________
a)      Justus Von Liebig
b)      Sir Humphry Davy
c)      Van Helmont
d)      J.B. Lawes
Ans. B
8. Experiments on effect of manures on crop were initiated by ________
a)      Sir John Bannet Lawes
b)      G. J. Mendel
c)      Van Helmont
d)      Justus Von Liebig
Ans. A
9. ________ (1674-1741 AD) conducted several experiments on plant nutrient and published a book, “Horse Hoeing Husbandry”
a)      Sir Humphry Davy
b)      Aristotal
c)      Jethro Tull
d)      Van Helmount
Ans. C
10. Kharif, Rabi and Zaid word belong to _______
a)      Urdu
b)      French
c)      Persian
d)      Arabic
Ans. D
11. Climate pertains to a __________
a)      Long period of time
b)      Short duration
c)      Medium duration
d)      None
Ans. A
12. Principles of mercury barometers was discovered by __________
a)      Torricelli
b)      Aristotle
c)      Pliny
d)      Galileo
Ans. A
13. Instrument used for measuring wind velocity is known as __________
a)      Hydrometer
b)      Pyranometer
c)      Altimeter
d)      Anemometer
Ans. D
14. The term PET was coined by __________
a)      Sarkar and Biswas
b)      Haigreaves
c)      Thornthwaite
d)      Mendel
Ans. C
15. A rainy day called when rainfall received in 24 hrs
a)      >2.5 mm
b)      >3.0 mm
c)      >5.0 mm
d)      >1.0 mm
Ans. A
16. Directorate of Onion and Garlic Research (DOGR) is situated at ________
a)      Shimla
b)      Nasik
c)      New Delhi
d)      Lucknow
Ans. B
17. Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is located at ________
a)      Jodhpur
b)      Nagpur
c)      Bikaner
d)      Pune
Ans. A
18. National Horticulture Mission (NHM) was started in ________
a)      2000-01
b)      2003-04
c)      2001-02
d)      2005-06
Ans. D
19. National Research Centre for Litchi (NRCL) is located at _________
a)      Pune
b)      Muzaffarpur
c)      Lucknow
d)      Kolkata
Ans. B
20. Central Drug Research Institute is situated at _________
a)      Lucknow
b)      Mumbai
c)      New Delhi
d)      Hyderabad
Ans. A
 21. National Biodiversity Authority is located at _________
a)      Chennai
b)      New Delhi
c)      Nagpur
d)      Gurgaon
Ans. A
22. Central Institute of Post-Harvest Engineering and Technology (CIPHET) is located at ________
a)      Haryana
b)      Pune
c)      Ludhiana
d)      Gurgaon
Ans. C
23. International Potato Research Centre at _________
a)      Shimla
b)      Peru
c)      Rome
d)      USA
Ans. B
24. Father of Horticulture
a)      Thomas Andrew Knight
b)      Liberty Hyde Bailey
c)      John Lindley
d)      All of the above
Ans. D
25. Word “Horticulture” is derived from _________
a)      Latin
b)      English
c)      Greek
d)      Italic
Ans. A
26. All India Coordinated Vegetable Improvement Project (AICVIP) was started in _____
a)      1991-92
b)      1981-82
c)      1970-71
d)      1960-61
Ans. C
27. First commercial vegetable seed production unit in India was established in 1942 at _____
a)      Quetta
b)      Kullu
c)      Nilgiri
d)      Pusa
Ans. A
28. Under the All India Coordinated Vegetable Improvement Project (AICVIP), India is divided into agro-climatic zones
a)      8
b)      12
c)      18
d)      24
Ans. A
29. New seed police was launched in ________
a)      1982
b)      1992
c)      1988
d)      1986
Ans. C
30. Pomology is derived from _____
a)      Latin
b)      French
c)      English
d)      Greek
Ans. D
31. Who coined the term genetics?
a)      Hugo de vries
b)      W.L. Johannsen
c)      T.H. Morgan
d)      W. Bateson
Ans. D
32. The germplasm theory was proposed by _____
a)      Weisman
b)      Mendel
c)      Darwin
d)      Hugo de vries
Ans. A
33. The alternative forms of a gene are known as _____
a)      Transgene
b)      Pseudogene
c)      Mixed gene
d)      Alleles
Ans. D
34. Which of the following is the controlling centre of a cell
a)      Chloroplast
b)      Nucleus
c)      Nucleolus
d)      Mitochondria
Ans. B
35. Which of the following produces pseudo-dominance
a)      Inversion
b)      Deletion
c)      Duplication
d)      Translocation
Ans. B
36. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA
a)      Adenine
b)      Thymine
c)      Uracil
d)      Cytosine
Ans. C
37. Balbiani rings are found in which of the following
a)      Lampbrush chromosomes
b)      Sex chromosomes
c)      Polytene chromosomes
d)      B chromosomes
Ans. C
38. In which of the following sub stages of meiosis-I, chromatin exchange between non- sister chromatids is completed
a)      Pachytene
b)      Diplotene
c)      Zygotene
d)      Diakinesis
Ans. A
39. The theory of origin of species through natural selection was proposed by _____
a)      Darwin
b)      Lamarck
c)      Mendel
d)      Vilmorin
Ans. A
40. In 1909 multiple factor hypothesis was given by _____
a)      Levene
b)      Brown
c)      Nilson Ehle
d)      Waldeyer
Ans. C
41. Mendel’s laws were rediscovered in which of the following years
a)      1890
b)      1905
c)      1900
d)      1898
Ans. C
42. The term ‘genotype’ and ‘phenotype’ were introduced by _____
a)      W.L. Johannsen
b)      W.Bateson
c)      G.J. Mendel
d)      R.C. Punnet
Ans. A
43. Gene which affect the expression of more than one character are known as which of the following
a)      Multiple gene
b)      Pleiotropic gene
c)      Epistatic gene
d)      Hypostatic gene
Ans. B
44. Effect of one gene on the phenotypic expression of other non-allelic gene is termed as which of the following
a)      Dominance
b)      Pleiotropy
c)      Epistatic
d)      Over-dominance
Ans. C
45. In case of supplementary gene action, F2 generation shows which of the following phenotypic ratio
a)      9:3:4
b)      9:7
c)      12:3:1
d)      9:6:1
Ans. A
46. In 5 master horizon which horizon is called elluvial/washout horizon
a)      A
b)      B
c)      E
d)      All of the above
Ans. C
47. The active soil forming factor
a)      Climate
b)      Relief
c)      Organism
d)      Both A and C
Ans. D
48. The parent material transported by gravity is called _______
a)        Lacustrine
b)        Colluvium
c)         Alluvium
d)        None of the above
Ans. B
49. Transformation of raw organic matter into humus is called ________
a)      Humification
b)      Brounification
c)      Rubrification
d)      All of the above
Ans. A
50. Removal of silica from soil and accumulation of sesquioxide is known as _____
a)      Podzolization
b)      Laterization
c)      Gleization
d)      Both A and B
Ans. B
51. In India homestead garden mainly practiced
a)      South
b)      West
c)      East
d)      North
Ans. A
52. Leucaena leucocephala fixex nitrogen in the range of kg/ha/year
a)      100-200
b)      100-300
c)      100-400
d)      100-500
Ans. D
53. In which part of India the first taungya plantation started
a)      North Bengal
b)      South Bengal
c)      East Bengal
d)      All of these
Ans. A
54. Which direction hedge row intercropping is raised?
a)      South-East
b)      North-West
c)      East-West
d)      West-East
Ans. C
55. Freshly cut wood contain ______ per cent moisture
a)      12-15
b)      15-17
c)      20-22
d)      23-25
Ans. D
56. Taungya system is followed in area having rainfall of ______
a)      1200-1500 mm
b)      1500-2000 mm
c)      2000-2500 mm
d)      2500-3000 mm
Ans. A
57. In India average size of home garden is ______
a)      1-2 ha
b)      2-3 ha
c)      2-4 ha
d)      2-5 ha
Ans. D
58. Root of trees contain (%) total living biomass is _______
a)      10-15
b)      15-20
c)      20-25
d)      20-30
Ans. C
59. Van-Mahotasav was started in the year
a)      1947
b)      1950
c)      1955
d)      1960
Ans. B
60. In India, plantation forestry was started in ________
a)      1840
b)      1842
c)      1848
d)      184
Ans. B
61. Nitrogen fixing ability of Casurina is due to _____
a)      Rhizobium
b)      Azotobactor
c)      Frankia
d)      All of these
Ans. C
62. Social forestry was first recommended by ________
a)      National Commission on Agriculture
b)      Food and Agriculture Organization
c)      Govt. of India
d)      United Nation
Ans. A
63. “Tree means water, water is bread and bread is life” was first time quoted by ______
a)      Westoby
b)      Stenley
c)      William
d)      Shelford
Ans. A
64. The world Agroforestry Centre is located at _________
a)      Jhansi
b)      Nairobi
c)      Dehradun
d)      Jodhpur
Ans. B
65. The D & D procedure applied in the village is known as:
a)      Meso level
b)      Macro level
c)      Micro level
d)      All of these
Ans. A
66. Pomato is somatic
a)      Poppy and Potato
b)      Poppy and Tamarind
c)      Potato and Tomato
d)      Poppy and Tomato
Ans. C
67. Preserving germplasm in frozen state is ______
a)      Cryopreservation
b)      In situ preservation
c)      Cold storage
d)      Vernalisation
Ans. A
68. ‘Hairy roots’ induced in vitro by the infection of Agrobacterium rhizogenes, are characterized by ______
a)      High degree of lateral branching
b)      Genetic instability of culture
c)      Presence of geotropism
d)      Poor biomass production
Ans. A
69. In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of _________
a)      Auxin and no cytokinin
b)      High auxin and low cytokinin
c)      High cytokinin and low auxin
d)      Auxin and cytokinin equal proportion
Ans. B
70. Transgenic microorganisms have been used to improve or benefit all but which of the following _________
a)      Meat yield
b)      Crop improvement
c)      Pest reduction
d)      Bioremediation
Ans. A
71. Plant medium used widely in preparation of culture medium is got from _________
a)      Cycas revolute
b)      Cocos nucifera
c)      Pirns roxburghii
d)      Borassus flabellifera
Ans. B
72. Flavr savr variety of Tomato remains fresh for long because it _________
a)      Has little polygalacturonase
b)      Abundant polygalacturonase
c)      Has gene for antibiotic resistance
d)      Lacks amylase
Ans. A
73. A major use of embryo culture is in _________
a)      Clonal propagation
b)      Overcoming hybridization barrier
c)      Production of alkaloids
d)      Introduction of somaclonal variation
Ans. B
74. Tiny fat bubbles used to deliver genes are _________
a)      Electropores
b)      Cholesterols
c)      Phospholipids
d)      Liposomes
Ans. D
75. A true transgenic organism must carry the transgene in _______
a)      Every cell
b)      Somatic cells only
c)      Gametes only
d)      The cell that originally gets it
Ans. A
76. Transgenic pharming involves using ______ to produce recombinant proteins in ______
a)      Cows, milk
b)      Bacteria, culture media
c)      Phage, bacteria
d)      Fungi, culture media
Ans. A
77. Bt toxin producing plants are resistant to ________
a)      Brown plant hopper
b)      Round worm
c)      Gall midge
d)      Pink Boll worm
Ans. D
78. Which of the following is not a cloning vector
a)      Helicase
b)      SV40
c)      PBR322
d)      E.coli genomic DNA
Ans. A
79. The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is known as ______
a)      Redifferentiation
b)      Either A or B
c)      Dedifferentiation
d)      None of the above
Ans. C
80. The first field tests were conducted with which of the following genetically altered organism
a)      Bt Corn
b)      The flavr savr tomato
c)      Vaccinia virus containing a gene from the rabies virus
d)      Strawberry seedlings sprayed with ice-minus bacteria
Ans. D
81. Father of Microbiology
a)      A.V. Leeuwenhoek
b)      Robert Hooke
c)      Robert Koch
d)      Ivanovsky
Ans. A
82. Father of Bacteriology
a)      A.V. Leewenhoek
b)      Robert Hooke
c)      Robert Koch
d)      Ivanovsky
Ans. C
83. The natural resistance in plant attributed by ______
a)      Polyphenols
b)      Thick cell wall
c)      Good nutrition
d)      High protein content
Ans. B
84. Unicellular prokaryotic microorganism with ray like filaments
a)      Bacteria
b)      Fungi
c)      Actinomycetes
d)      All of the above
Ans. C
85. Cell wall of gram positive bacteria is made up of ______
a)      Amino acid
b)      Lipid
c)      Pepditogycan
d)      Protein
Ans. C
86. Nitrification process is discovered by _____
a)      Schloesing and Muntz (1877)
b)      Ruinen and Hiltner
c)      Winogradsky and Beijernick
d)      Beijernickia and Winogradsky
Ans. A
87. Bacteria responsible for Nitrification is isolated by _______
a)      Winogradsky
b)      Beijernickia
c)      Ruinen
d)      Hiltner
Ans. A
88. The first member of the genus Azotobacter is discovered by ______
a)      M.W. Beijerinck
b)      Winogradsky
c)      Ruinen
d)      Hiltner
Ans. A
89. The word Rhizosphere and Phyllosphere is respectively given by ______
a)      Hiltner and Ruinen
b)      Ruincn and Hiltner
c)      Winogradsky and Beijernickia
d)      None of the above
Ans. B
90. Which of following is not found in prokaryotic cell
a)      Ribosomes
b)      Cell wall
c)      Photosynthetic membrane
d)      Nucleus
Ans. D
91. Flagellar arrangement when it was cluster of polar flagella
a)      Monotrichous
b)      Lophotrichous
c)      Peritrichous
d)      Amphitrichous
Ans. B
92. Robert Koch worked on ______
a)      Diabetes
b)      Cholera
c)      Malaria
d)      Tuberculosis
Ans. D
193. Cold loving microbe is known as _____
a)      Mesophile
b)      Psychrophile
c)      Thermophile
d)      Hyperthermophile
Ans. B
94. Prokaryotic microorganism includes ______
a)      Fungi
b)      Actinomycetes
c)      Bacteria
d)      Virus
Ans. C
95. First electron microscope was made by ______
a)        Knoll and Ruska
b)        Ernest Abbe
c)         Robert Koch
d)        Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
Ans. A
96. Maximum power developed by an average man is about
a)      1 hp
b)      0.1 hp
c)      0.2 hp
d)      0.5 hp
Ans. B
97. Thermal efficiency of petrol engine varies from
a)      32 to 38%
b)      25 to 32%
c)      50 to 60%
d)      None of these
Ans. B
98. The drought animal can exert an average force approximately
a)      1/10th of their body weight
b)      1/5th of their body weight
c)      1/15th of their body weight
d)      1/7th of their body weight
Ans. A
99. Methane percentage of biogas varies from _________
a)      5 to 10%
b)      10 to 25%
c)      30 to 40%
d)      45 to 70%
Ans. D
100. The ratio of cow dung and water for making slurry to feed the bio-gas plant is _______
a)        1:2
b)        4:5
c)         3:2
d)        1:5
Ans. B


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