Samvidhan Diwas 2025: Top 50 MCQs on Indian Constitution (75th Anniversary Special)

Master the 75th Anniversary of the Indian Constitution with our ultimate 50-question quiz for 2025. Covering the "Hamara Samvidhan" theme, new Criminal Laws (BNS), landmark 2025 Supreme Court judgments, and static history. Essential for UPSC, SSC, and Law aspirants.

November 26, 2025, marks a historic milestone in India's democratic journey—the 75th Anniversary of the Adoption of the Constitution. As the nation celebrates Samvidhan Diwas under the campaign "Hamara Samvidhan – Hamara Swabhiman" (Our Constitution – Our Pride), it is the perfect time to test your constitutional literacy.

From the implementation of the new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS) to landmark Supreme Court verdicts on Article 39(b) and PMLA, the legal landscape has evolved significantly in the last 12 months. This comprehensive blog post features 50 Expert-Curated MCQs divided into Current Affairs, History, and Core Concepts to help you ace your competitive exams or simply become a more informed citizen.

Section 1: Constitution Day 2025 & Current Affairs (Questions 1–12)

Question 1 What is the official campaign theme for the 75th Anniversary of the adoption of the Constitution in 2025?

A) India: The Mother of Democracy
B) Hamara Samvidhan – Hamara Swabhiman
C) My Constitution, My Pride
D) Samvidhan: The Soul of India

Correct Answer: (B) Hamara Samvidhan – Hamara Swabhiman

Detailed Explanation: The Government of India launched the "Hamara Samvidhan – Hamara Swabhiman" campaign to commemorate the 75th year. It focuses on mass reading of the Preamble and increasing legal awareness among youth.

Question 2 2025 marks the 75th anniversary of the adoption of the Constitution. In which year was November 26 officially declared as "Constitution Day"?

A) 1950
B) 2015
C) 2019
D) 1949

Correct Answer: (B) 2015

Detailed Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi declared November 26 as Constitution Day in 2015 to coincide with the 125th birth anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Before this, it was observed as National Law Day.

Question 3 Which major legal transition took place effectively in late 2024/2025, replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?

A) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
B) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
C) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
D) The New Penal Code of India

Correct Answer: (B) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)

Detailed Explanation: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) officially replaced the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860. It aims to decolonize the justice system and introduces community service as a form of punishment.

Question 4 In the 2024-25 Property Owners Association judgment, the Supreme Court overruled the "Krishna Iyer Doctrine" regarding Article 39(b). What was the ruling?

A) All private property is a community resource.
B) The State can acquire any land without compensation.
C) Not every private property is a "material resource of the community."
D) Article 39(b) is superior to Fundamental Rights.

Correct Answer: (C) Not every private property is a "material resource of the community."

Detailed Explanation: The 9-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the state cannot claim all private property as "material resources of the community" to redistribute for the common good. It must be decided on a case-by-case basis.

Question 5 Which digital platform allows citizens to read the Preamble in 22 languages and download a certificate for Constitution Day 2025?

A) Constitution75.com
B) ReadThePreamble.nic.in
C) MyGov Legal
D) Samvidhan.gov.in

Correct Answer: (B) ReadThePreamble.nic.in (via MyGov)

Detailed Explanation: The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs revitalized this portal to encourage citizens to read the Preamble in their mother tongue and share their certificates on social media.

Question 6 The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, often discussed in 2025, relates to:

A) One Nation One Election
B) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Women's Reservation)
C) EWS Quota extension
D) GST Rationalization

Correct Answer: (B) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Women's Reservation)

Detailed Explanation: The 106th Amendment mandates 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Its implementation is linked to the first census conducted after the Act's passing.

Question 7 In State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024), the Supreme Court allowed sub-classification within which group?

A) OBCs (Other Backward Classes)
B) Scheduled Castes (SCs)
C) Scheduled Tribes (STs) only
D) EWS (Economically Weaker Sections)

Correct Answer: (B) Scheduled Castes (SCs)

Detailed Explanation: The Court held that SCs are not a homogenous group. States can sub-classify them to provide separate quotas for the "most backward" among the SCs to ensure equitable distribution of benefits.

Question 8 In the Electoral Bonds Case (2024), the Supreme Court struck down the scheme for violating which Article?

A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 25

Correct Answer: (B) Article 19(1)(a)

Detailed Explanation: The Court ruled that the anonymity of Electoral Bonds violated the voter's "Right to Know" regarding political funding, which is essential for freedom of speech and expression.

Question 9 The proposed "One Nation, One Election" reform requires amendment to which of the following Articles?

A) Article 83 (Duration of Houses)
B) Article 172 (Duration of State Legislatures)
C) Article 356 (President's Rule)
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Detailed Explanation: To synchronize elections, the tenure of various state assemblies and the Lok Sabha must be aligned, requiring changes to Articles 83, 172, 356, and 324.

Question 10 Which recent Supreme Court judgment (2024) removed the immunity of MPs/MLAs from prosecution for taking bribes?

A) Sita Soren v. Union of India
B) Lily Thomas v. Union of India
C) ADR v. Union of India
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao Case

Correct Answer: (A) Sita Soren v. Union of India

Detailed Explanation: A 7-judge bench overruled the 1998 P.V. Narasimha Rao judgment, stating that parliamentary privilege does not protect legislators who accept bribes to vote or speak in the House.

Question 11 The Constitution of India was recently released in which two classical languages to mark the 75th Anniversary?

A) Sanskrit and Maithili
B) Tamil and Telugu
C) Pali and Prakrit
D) Kannada and Malayalam

Correct Answer: (A) Sanskrit and Maithili

Detailed Explanation: To promote cultural heritage under the "Hamara Samvidhan" campaign, the government released special editions of the Constitution in Sanskrit and Maithili.

Question 12 Who is the current Chief Justice of India (as of late 2025 context)?

A) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
C) Justice B.R. Gavai
D) Justice Surya Kant

Correct Answer: (B) Justice Sanjiv Khanna

Detailed Explanation: Following the retirement of CJI D.Y. Chandrachud in November 2024, Justice Sanjiv Khanna took oath as the 51st Chief Justice of India.

Section 2: Constitutional History & Making (Questions 13–24)

Question 13 Who was the Temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly during its first meeting?

A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Patel

Correct Answer: (B) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Detailed Explanation: Following the French practice, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly on December 9, 1946.

Question 14 The "Objective Resolution" was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on:

A) December 9, 1946
B) December 13, 1946
C) January 22, 1947
D) August 15, 1947

Correct Answer: (B) December 13, 1946

Detailed Explanation: Nehru moved the Objective Resolution on Dec 13, 1946. It laid the philosophical foundation of the Constitution and was later adopted as the Preamble.

Question 15 Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) K.M. Munshi
C) Sir B.N. Rau
D) T.T. Krishnamachari

Correct Answer: (C) Sir B.N. Rau

Detailed Explanation: Sir Benegal Narsing Rau was the Constitutional Advisor who prepared the initial draft of the Constitution for the Drafting Committee to consider.

Question 16 Who was the only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly?

A) Begum Aizaz Rasul
B) Aruna Asaf Ali
C) Sucheta Kripalani
D) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

Correct Answer: (A) Begum Aizaz Rasul

Detailed Explanation: Begum Qudsia Aizaz Rasul was the only Muslim woman in the Assembly. She played a key role in opposing separate electorates.

Question 17 The original Constitution was handwritten by which calligrapher?

A) Nandalal Bose
B) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
C) Beohar Rammanohar Sinha
D) Abanindranath Tagore

Correct Answer: (B) Prem Behari Narain Raizada

Detailed Explanation: Prem Behari Narain Raizada hand-wrote the original Constitution in a flowing Italic style. He did not charge a fee but asked to sign every page.

Question 18 How many sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold?

A) 9 Sessions
B) 11 Sessions
C) 12 Sessions
D) 15 Sessions

Correct Answer: (B) 11 Sessions

Detailed Explanation: The Assembly met for 11 sessions over 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days. (Note: Some sources say 12 if the final signing session on Jan 24, 1950, is included, but 11 is the standard answer for the drafting period ending Nov 26, 1949).

Question 19 The "Procedure Established by Law" was borrowed from which country?

A) USA
B) UK
C) Japan
D) Canada

Correct Answer: (C) Japan

Detailed Explanation: Article 21 uses the phrase "Procedure Established by Law," which is borrowed from the Japanese Constitution.

Question 20 Which Act was the primary source for the structural part of the Indian Constitution (approx. 75%)?

A) Indian Councils Act 1909
B) Government of India Act 1919
C) Government of India Act 1935
D) Indian Independence Act 1947

Correct Answer: (C) Government of India Act 1935

Detailed Explanation: The bulk of the administrative machinery, the federal scheme, judiciary, governors, and emergency powers were drawn from the GoI Act 1935.

Question 21 Who described the Preamble as the "Identity Card of the Constitution"?

A) N.A. Palkhivala
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) K.M. Munshi
D) Ernest Barker

Correct Answer: (A) N.A. Palkhivala

Detailed Explanation: N.A. Palkhivala, an eminent jurist and constitutional expert, famously called the Preamble the "Identity Card of the Constitution."

Question 22 Which committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties?

A) Verma Committee
B) Swaran Singh Committee
C) Sarkaria Commission
D) Mandal Commission

Correct Answer: (B) Swaran Singh Committee

Detailed Explanation: Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) were added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976) based on the Swaran Singh Committee's recommendations during the Emergency.

Question 23 The National Emblem (Ashoka Pillar) on the Constitution was sketched by:

A) Nandalal Bose
B) Dinanath Bhargava
C) Raja Ravi Varma
D) Jamini Roy

Correct Answer: (B) Dinanath Bhargava

Detailed Explanation: A student of Nandalal Bose, Dinanath Bhargava, visited the Alipore Zoo to study lions to accurately sketch the National Emblem for the Constitution.

Question 24 When was the National Flag adopted by the Constituent Assembly?

A) 26th January 1950
B) 26th November 1949
C) 22nd July 1947
D) 15th August 1947

Correct Answer: (C) 22nd July 1947

Detailed Explanation: The National Flag was adopted on July 22, 1947, a few weeks before Independence.

Section 3: Key Articles & Schedules (Questions 25–38)

Question 25 Which Article is known as the "Heart and Soul" of the Constitution?

A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32

Correct Answer: (D) Article 32

Detailed Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) the "Heart and Soul" because it allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court if their Fundamental Rights are violated.

Question 26 Which Schedule deals with the division of powers between Union and States (Lists)?

A) 6th Schedule
B) 7th Schedule
C) 8th Schedule
D) 9th Schedule

Correct Answer: (B) 7th Schedule

Detailed Explanation: The 7th Schedule contains three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, defining the legislative powers of the Centre and States.

Question 27 "Uniform Civil Code" is mentioned in which Article?

A) Article 40
B) Article 44
C) Article 45
D) Article 50

Correct Answer: (B) Article 44

Detailed Explanation: Article 44, a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), states that the State shall endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India.

Question 28 Money Bills can be introduced only in:

A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Joint Sitting
D) Either House

Correct Answer: (B) Lok Sabha

Detailed Explanation: Under Article 110/109, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers over it.

Question 29 Which Article provides for the "Annual Financial Statement" (Budget)?

A) Article 110
B) Article 112
C) Article 266
D) Article 280

Correct Answer: (B) Article 112

Detailed Explanation: The Constitution does not use the word "Budget." Instead, Article 112 refers to it as the "Annual Financial Statement."

Question 30 Which Article empowers the President to grant pardons?

A) Article 72
B) Article 61
C) Article 123
D) Article 161

Correct Answer: (A) Article 72

Detailed Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person.

Question 31 The 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) was added by which Amendment?

A) 42nd
B) 44th
C) 52nd
D) 61st

Correct Answer: (C) 52nd Amendment (1985)

Detailed Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 added the 10th Schedule to curb the "Aaya Ram Gaya Ram" culture of political defections.

Question 32 Which Article deals with the "Abolition of Untouchability"?

A) Article 16
B) Article 17
C) Article 18
D) Article 23

Correct Answer: (B) Article 17

Detailed Explanation: Article 17 abolishes "untouchability" and forbids its practice in any form. It is an absolute right.

Question 33 Under Article 356, the President’s Rule can be imposed in a state on the failure of:

A) Financial stability
B) Constitutional Machinery
C) Law and Order only
D) Election Commission

Correct Answer: (B) Constitutional Machinery

Detailed Explanation: Article 356 allows the imposition of President's Rule if the President is satisfied that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 34 Which Article guarantees the "Right to Education" (6-14 years)?

A) Article 21
B) Article 21A
C) Article 45
D) Article 51A

Correct Answer: (B) Article 21A

Detailed Explanation: Added by the 86th Amendment Act (2002), Article 21A makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

Question 35 The term "Cabinet" is mentioned only once in the Constitution in which Article?

A) Article 74
B) Article 75
C) Article 352
D) Article 360

Correct Answer: (C) Article 352

Detailed Explanation: Originally not in the Constitution, the word "Cabinet" was inserted in Article 352 by the 44th Amendment (1978), stating that the President can proclaim an emergency only on the written advice of the Cabinet.

Question 36 Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

A) The President
B) The Vice-President
C) The Prime Minister
D) The Speaker

Correct Answer: (B) The Vice-President

Detailed Explanation: Article 64 states that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).

Question 37 The power of "Judicial Review" is derived primarily from:

A) Article 13
B) Article 368
C) Article 51
D) Article 123

Correct Answer: (A) Article 13

Detailed Explanation: Article 13 declares that any law that is inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void, providing the basis for Judicial Review.

Question 38 The 8th Schedule of the Constitution currently recognizes how many languages?

A) 14
B) 18
C) 22
D) 24

Correct Answer: (C) 22

Detailed Explanation: Originally 14, the list has expanded to 22 languages through various amendments (Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali).

Section 4: Advanced Concepts & Trivia (Questions 39–50)

Question 39 Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A) G.V. Mavalankar
B) M.A. Ayyangar
C) Sardar Hukam Singh
D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

Correct Answer: (A) G.V. Mavalankar

Detailed Explanation: Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, known as "Dada Saheb," was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha (1952–1956).

Question 40 In the event of a "Joint Sitting" of Parliament, who presides over the session?

A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chief Justice of India

Correct Answer: (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Detailed Explanation: A Joint Sitting (Article 108) is summoned by the President but is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Question 41 Which writ means "To have the body of"?

A) Mandamus
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Quo-Warranto
D) Certiorari

Correct Answer: (B) Habeas Corpus

Detailed Explanation: Habeas Corpus is the most powerful writ for personal liberty, protecting citizens from unlawful detention.

Question 42 The concept of "Public Interest Litigation" (PIL) was introduced in India by:

A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
B) Justice H.J. Kania
C) Justice M. Hidayatullah
D) Justice Dalveer Bhandari

Correct Answer: (A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

Detailed Explanation: Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer are the pioneers of PIL in India, relaxing the rule of locus standi to help the poor.

Question 43 The 61st Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 in which year?

A) 1985
B) 1988 (Effective 1989)
C) 1991
D) 1999

Correct Answer: (B) 1988 (Effective 1989)

Detailed Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the voting age to 18 years for Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.

Question 44 Finance Commission is constituted by the President every:

A) 4 Years
B) 5 Years
C) 6 Years
D) 10 Years

Correct Answer: (B) 5 Years

Detailed Explanation: Under Article 280, the President constitutes a Finance Commission every 5 years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States.

Question 45 Which part of the Constitution is called the "Magna Carta of India"?

A) Part III (Fundamental Rights)
B) Part IV (DPSP)
C) Part IX (Panchayats)
D) The Preamble

Correct Answer: (A) Part III (Fundamental Rights)

Detailed Explanation: Part III containing Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35) is termed the Magna Carta of India as it guarantees justiciable rights to citizens.

Question 46 The "Basic Structure" doctrine was propounded in:

A) Golaknath Case
B) Kesavananda Bharati Case
C) Minerva Mills Case
D) Maneka Gandhi Case

Correct Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)

Detailed Explanation: The 13-judge bench in Kesavananda Bharati ruled that Parliament cannot alter the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution.

Question 47 Which body conducts elections to Municipalities and Panchayats?

A) Election Commission of India
B) State Election Commission
C) District Collector
D) Union Home Ministry

Correct Answer: (B) State Election Commission

Detailed Explanation: The State Election Commission (Articles 243K and 243ZA) is responsible for conducting elections to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities), separate from the ECI.

Question 48 Who appoints the Governor of a State?

A) The Chief Minister
B) The President
C) The Chief Justice of High Court
D) The Prime Minister

Correct Answer: (B) The President

Detailed Explanation: The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 155).

Question 49 The idea of "Republic" and "Liberty, Equality, Fraternity" in the Preamble was borrowed from:

A) Russian Revolution
B) French Revolution
C) American Revolution
D) German Constitution

Correct Answer: (B) French Revolution

Detailed Explanation: The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity and the concept of a Republic were inspired by the French Constitution/Revolution.

Question 50 Which Article forbids the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous factories?

A) Article 21
B) Article 23
C) Article 24
D) Article 45

Correct Answer: (C) Article 24

Detailed Explanation: Article 24 is a Fundamental Right against Exploitation that prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, or hazardous activities.

Sources of Information

Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs & PIB: For 2025 themes ("Hamara Samvidhan"), campaign details, and "Read the Preamble" initiative.
Supreme Court of India Official Judgments: For 2024-25 verdicts (Property Owners Association, Sita Soren, Electoral Bonds, SC Sub-classification).
The Gazette of India: For 106th Amendment (Women's Reservation) and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) implementation notifications.
Constituent Assembly Debates (CAD): For historical facts regarding the drafting, temporary chairman, and committees.
NCERT & Standard Legal Texts: For static constitutional facts (Articles, Schedules, Borrowed Features).